In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?
On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.
Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.
Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.
The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.
Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations.
想问一下,如果先不考虑正确答案e选项的情况下,只看c 选项,c 不能看成是提供了一个反例(Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady )吗?
是这样,反例这个事情,只在类比推理里是有效的,这个题和类比没啥关系哈~
关于选项C本身,C讲的是,某些品牌的咖啡降了,某些没降。但这只能告诉我们下降的那些消耗量是降在一般的品牌而不是特殊的品牌上。并不能评估到底是不是健康意识这个原因导致消耗量下降的。也就是说,选项C只说了消耗量下降的事,依然没说到到底是因为什么原因导致消耗量下降。所以相当于和结论没有关系
登录 或 注册 后可以参加讨论